Is it permissible for a man to sell some of his property to one of his sons, noting that some of them are able to buy while others do not have anything and are unable to buy?
It is permissible for a man to sell some of his property to one of his sons, if he is able to buy it, and to deal with him as he would deal with a stranger. But he should not show any bias towards him in a manner that implies he is favouring him over his brothers.
