Is it permissible for a man
to sell something that he owns to one of his sons, knowing that some of
them are able to make the purchase whilst others do not have anything and
cannot make the purchase?
It is permissible for a man to sell some of his property to one of his sons, if he (the son) is able to make the purchase, and he should deal with him as he would deal with a stranger. He should not give him any preferential treatment that would indicate that he favours him over his siblings.
