Download
0 / 0

Meaning of the “zakaah year” is that one hijri year has passed since the wealth reached the nisaab

Question: 207109

I have some money since after Ramadan last year (1433 AH). What I mean is three months of the last year. Has the year passed for this money? What about next Ramadan? Should I pay (zakaah) for two years or one year?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon the Messenger of Allah and his family.

In order for zakaah to become obligatory,
it is stipulated that one year should have passed. What this means is that
one hijri year should have passed since the wealth reached the nisaab
(minimum threshold), because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be
upon him) said: “There is no zakaah on wealth until one year has passed.”
Classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel (no. 787) 

Based on that, if you took possession of
that money three months after Ramadan (i.e., in Muharram, more or less), in
1434 AH, then zakaah on that money only becomes obligatory for you, if it
reached the nisaab, in the month of Muharram 1435 AH, and it is not
permissible for you to delay it until Ramadan 1435 AH. 

Zakaah on one’s wealth is not connected to
the month of Ramadan or any other month; rather it is connected to the time
when the wealth reached the nisaab. When it reaches the nisaab, it becomes
obligatory to work out when the “zakaah year” will end from that time, then
pay zakaah on it, when one year has passed since it was acquired. 

And Allah knows best.

Source

Islam Q&A

Was this answer helpful?

at email

Our newsletter

To join our newsletter please add your email below

phone

IslamQA App

For a quick access to our content and offline browsing

download iosdownload android
at email

Our newsletter

To join our newsletter please add your email below

phone

IslamQA App

For a quick access to our content and offline browsing

download iosdownload android